I would like to understand how the swing indicator is processed during backtesting. I read that it is biased because it is calculated with values from future bars. I always understood that, being event driven, backtests in NT are market like.
Does NT calculate at a point t with the swing value that is known at t+1? or the one known at t? This make a major difference since the first would lead to a future bias whereas the second would not.
Thanks,
Marco

Comment